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Interpretation

Written by Aussie girl at 28 Jul 2003 16:50:20:

As an answer to: And possibly not! written by Paul B. at 28 Jul 2003 14:14:41:

Jay asked "can phimosis be the reason for lost erections" and you said "in a word...no", so we are saying something totally different.

No my 38 year old was not ever able to retract his foreskin, and had never seen his glans. He didn't even know it was supposed to retract till I told him. He had a few attempts at sex over the years, but couldn't ever get enough stimulation to cum. I witnessed very strong erections that only went down from the pain when the foreskin was forced behind the glans for the first time ever) and returned. He didn't lose erections with the other girls he attempted sex with, he couldn't cum, but losing erections and not being able to cum can certainly both be caused by insufficient stimulation.

The 38 year old and Jay were in the same category where neither one of them was able to retract at all.

It's possible that Jay's loss of erections is caused by anxiety, but I had to disagree when you said it's not possible for his phimosis to be the cause.

My 38 year old was in the last part of the sentence in this exerpt from http://members.lycos.co.uk/origins/library/medicus/beauge.html

"From the interviews it appears that the great majority of these subjects are virgin, and that among those who have had sexual experience, many have failed, with difficulty in penetration, pain and loss of erection; except perhaps in cases of the tightest phimoses who were successful in penile penetration with the glans covered."

>No AG, I don't actually think we are saying anything different, just a little matter of interpretation of the details(!).
>Your fellow was 38, and you don't mention his sexual history, but I suspect he had a few years of at least attempting sex, and his complaint was specific - lack of sensation. And he could obviously retract his foreskin when not erect, which suggests to me he was at least used to retraction, and if so was not as sensitive as someone who could not retract at all (a pre-requisite for not being aware of the nature of the problem, which "Jay" implies).
>So I think he was a different category - a different "stage" from his 14-year junior. If your friend indeed tended to lose erections, it was more likely because he anticipated "failure" on the basis of previous difficulty in achieving orgasm (and I also wonder whether his "never" was indeed "not ever", or "not recently"?). But in that case, I would have expected that he would more likely be unable to get an erection on the first place, than to "lose" it before you could orgasm. In addition, I suspect at the age of 38, he was a "late starter" for various reasons, of which the realisation that he had phimosis was perhaps one.
>I do think "Jay", who is specifically describing loss of erection, is most likely encountering this soon after starting, because he is becoming nervous about the whole encounter, because at that age, it is rarely necessary to have much stimulation anyway, in order to ejaculate, and only a particularly strong anxiety is likely to suppress it.


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